I doubt that over time Lord Denning's judgments will be seen as
having made a significant contribution to common law jurisprudence. I
never see his judgments cited in practice. But unless you're talking about
Lord Mansfield or Justice Marshall, this is so of all judges. These two
judges set modern law in motion. In the case of Lord Mansfield, modern
commercial law. In the case of Justice Marshall, modern
constitutional/administrative law. Everyone else, as far as I can tell,
are merely swimming in the streams developed by them--even the great Oliver
Wendell Holmes. It could be argued, I suppose, that Lord Denning was
the handmaiden of the modern judicial mindset in the common law
of Commonwealth countries (whether that attitude is good or bad is a different
question) and that for this reason he was a great judge. But I think
it more likely that the future will regard Lord Denning's judicial attitude as
part and parcel of a general attitude in the post-War period of questioning the
pre-War status quo and consequently that Lord Denning was timely, rather than
unique. If so, Denning will be remembered only for his distinctive writing
style and especially his opening lines ("It was bluebell time in Kent", Hinz v.
Berry or "In summertime village cricket is the delight of everyone." Miller v.
Jackson, etc). Still, the fact that we are having this debate shows
that, like the forms of action he so hated, still Denning influences us from the
grave.
Dear Andrew:
If the HL adopts the equitable estoppel doctrine
from Australia (as explained by Robertson) or something similar to s. 90 (as
explained by Seavey) would Denning have been proven wrong or right? We would
have estoppel as a cause of action (something he said was not permissible in
Combe) and one that was limited to detrimental reliance (which was not
his view at all). What score would you give him if that happened?
Does
subsequent incorporation of one of Denning's rules in a statute mean that he was
right? It seems equally open to the interpretation that he was wrong since the
legislature might have enacted the rule since they thought it impermissible for
a judge to do so (ie, a decision more political than judicial). Now I realize
that some of these statutes might be in the nature of a civil code (stating the
rules of justice as between individuals) but not all of them mentioned in these
flurries of posts are of this character. Just a thought.
What do
members of the board think of Viscount Simonds? I know that Rob thinks that
Denning dwarfs him but the few decisions of his that I have read I liked.
Have a great weekend all,
Jason Neyers
Associate Professor of Law &
Cassels Brock LLP Faculty Fellow in Contract Law
Faculty of Law
University of Western Ontario
N6A 3K7
(519) 661-2111 x. 88435
Andrew Burrows wrote:
Lord Denning
has always provoked controversy but my own view (contrary, as I understand it
to Jason and to Rob Stevens' aside in his recent inaugural lecture) is that,
in the realm of the law of obligations, he was one of the truly great English
judges of the twentieth century. While clearly not considering himself to be
boxed in by a rigid approach to precedent, and while regarding it as
legitimate for the courts to develop the law rather than leaving it to the
Legislature, my own perception is that he had a healthy respect for past
decisions and almost invariably thought it necessary to move the law forward
by careful reference to them. His vision for the right and legally principled
way forward for the common law was extraordinary. In contract one thinks, eg,
of his attempts to move the law forward on privity (had he been upheld we
would not have needed the Contracts (Rights of Third Parties) Act 1999; his
striking down of unfair exclusion clauses (in advance of UCTA 1977); and his
landmark judgments (in eg Jarvis) on mental distress damages. Personally I
also think he was right (and will in time be proved to be so) in High Trees
and other promissory estoppel cases and (more arguably) in Solle v Butcher on
common mistake (are we really content with the law as laid down in The Great
Peace?). In tort, his dissenting judgment in Candler Crane was later
vindicated in Hedley Byrne; in Sparham -Souter he tried to develop
discoverability as a starting point for limitation ten years before the Latent
Damage Act 1986; and it was he who clarified the law on seat belt contributory
negligence and on interest in personal injury cases. In the law of unjust
enrichment he was years ahead of his time in arguing in Nelson v Larholt for a
fusion of common law and equitable rules on the receipt of money paid without
authority and in Larner in 1949 he applied an approach to restitution of
mistaken payments that only came to be accepted as the true approach over 40
years later.Add to all this his unique and brilliant written style and I think
that in this area of the law we are much the poorer without him.
Andrew
Burrows
Jason Neyers wrote:
I guess we will have to agree to disagree since no
one else really seems interested. BTW, when I wrote that "I am free" that
does not mean that I do the things indicated merely that one is able to do
them in a way a judge is not. So I think that some of my statements about
law can still be trusted.
----- Original Message -----
From:
"Hedley, Steve" <S.Hedley@ucc.ie>
Date:
Thursday, November 27, 2008 3:35 am
Subject: RE: Denning
To: obligations@uwo.ca
>
>
>
>
>
>
It just gets better and better ...
>
>
“I am free to disagree, ignore and refuse to follow any case I want
in my writing or to be biased against people in my writing because of their
views of the law ...”
>
Believe me, I’d noticed. But
the sticky point is that, while ignoring the cases and venting your bias as
you say, you still claim to be stating the law! You are entirely free to
give your opinion of what the law should say – but your claim that it is
already the law cuts no ice.
>
>
“If I
were an intermediate appellate judge or trial judge (far-fetched I know) I
couldn't and wouldn't refuse to follow a Supreme Court of Canada case
because of non-conformity with corrective justice. I would point out the
cases flaws but say I was bound.”
>
So you agree that
someone who is obliged to state the law accurately must respect precedent.
(A point which applies to both judge and jurist, no?) It follows, doesn’t
it, that someone who ignores precedent has ceased to expound the law? And
that their claim to be describing the law should not be given much credence?
If your point about the judicial oath means that you don't feel obliged to
state the law accurately, then give us a reason to listen to any statements
of law you make.
>
>
“I also think
that you get the claims of CJ theorists spectacularly wrong. The claim is
not that CJ is being imported from the outside but that private law is
CJ--that CJ is immanent in the private law in its structure and most basic
concepts.”
>
I’m well aware of what (some) corrective
theorists claim. (Actually, many of them are more reasonable.) You have said
nothing to render this extreme claim believable. And as you have made very
clear, the claim involves intellectual devices (such as ignoring precedent)
which you loudly condemn in others. The claim is starkly implausible. If
after a lifetime in court Denning’s intuitions are still “imported from the
outside”, then how precisely is your own view “immanent” in the law? Which
has a more solid basis in the law and legal practice? Which is more likely
to stem from an understanding of how the legal system actually works? Which
is more likely to respect the legitimate interests of litigants, rather than
an abstract political philosophy written for another era?
>
>
“Some of the mistakes or mis-descriptions of the
cases he gave were so egregous that it is hard not to conclude that they
were purposeful if Denning was intelligent as it appears he was.”
>
Jurists in glass houses ...
>
>
“If not following binding precedents as an
intermediate judge or favoring one group of litigants over another (as you
pointed out he did) is not an example of bad faith judging what is? What in
the ordinary meaning of the words is bad faith judging or is there no such
thing?”
>
Well, if you want, we could have a serious
conversation about how judges should act in developing the law for the world
in which we live – I’m game. But I expect you’ll just claim that anything
other than wholesale application of corrective justice is unacceptable – as
usual.
>
>
/Steve Hedley
>
UCC///
>
>
>
>
------------------------------------------------------------------------
>
>
*From:* Jason Neyers [mailto:jneyers@uwo.ca]
> *Sent:* Wed
26/11/2008 21:36
> *To:* Hedley, Steve; obligations@uwo.ca
> *Subject:*
Re: Denning
>
>
> Steve:
>
> The key
difference between CJ theorists and a judge is that a judge takes an oath to
"do right to all manner of people after the laws ... of this Realm without
fear or favour, affection or ill will". A CJ theorist doesn't take that
oath. I am free to disagree, ignore and refuse to follow any case I want in
my writing or to be biased against people in my writing because of their
views of the law whereas a judge is not. If he or she habitually does so,
they may be sanctioned or removed from office (at least in Canada).
>
> If a CJ theorist was appointed to be a judge their obligations
would change because of the oath. So if I were an intermediate appellate
judge or trial judge (far-fetched I know) I couldn't and wouldn't refuse to
follow a Supreme Court of Canada case because of non-conformity with
corrective justice. I would point out the cases flaws but say I was bound.
>
> I also think that you get the claims of CJ theorists
spectacularly wrong. The claim is not that CJ is being imported from the
outside but that private law is CJ--that CJ is immanent in the private law
in its structure and most basic concepts. I know you do not buy this view
but that is the claim. That was not my impression of Lord Denning's claim in
the extra-juridical texts I have read of his. Therefore, a judge deciding
cases on CJ grounds at the ultimate appellate level could in all honesty say
that they were dispensing justice after the laws even if they were
over-ruling a case.
>
> In my defence, Denning himself was in
many instances very clear as to the reasons why he was doing what he was
doing so that no speculation on my part is necessary. Additionally, some of
the mistakes or mis-descriptions of the cases he gave were so egregous that
it is hard not to conclude that they were purposeful if Denning was
intelligent as it appears he was.
>
> If not following binding
precedents as an intermediate judge or favoring one group of litigants over
another (as you pointed out he did) is not an example of bad faith judging
what is? What in the ordinary meaning of the words is bad faith judging or
is there no such thing?
>
>
Jason Neyers
>
Associate Professor of Law & > Cassels Brock LLP Faculty Fellow in
Contract Law
> Faculty of Law
> University of Western Ontario
> N6A 3K7
> (519) 661-2111 x. 88435
>
> Hedley,
Steve wrote:
>
>
>
>
I find
it very hard to make sense of this.
>
Much of it
consists of some rather doubtful guesses as to Denning’s motivations and
thought-processes, which can only remain in the realm of speculation.
>
Even more of it is internally inconsistent.
Denning is criticised both for indifference to results – “it is corrosive
when judges start claiming that the law is no better than flipping a coin”
– and also for caring too much – “A judge judging in good faith should be
indifferent to the results ... which is not the sense that you get from
Denning's judgments”. At least one of those criticisms must be wrong.
>
The other criticisms are rather general-purpose,
and could be made of almost any view. For example, as an exercise, read
them as criticisms of those who espouse corrective justice. Surely it
could equally be said of those theorists that:
>
1.
They come to the cases with an “agenda” from outside the law, and are
“guided by [their] sense of what was right and wrong extra-juridically to
which [they] would make the law conform”. Indeed, they are quite open
about this, and rely heavily on Aristotle, who knew many things, but was
necessarily ignorant of common law.
>
2. They are
less-than-respectful of precedent. Corrective justice is treated as the
criterion for whether decisions are right, and cases inconsistent with it
are condemned as wrong. Discussion of binding precedent is rare in that
connection, presumably on the ground that a case which requires a wrong
result must itself also be wrong. (An argument that not even Denning dared
use, I think, though he came close at times.)
>
3.
They deliberately seek out issues that allow them to promote and defend
their views. Well, obviously. And why not?
>
4.
They give no sense that they are constrained by law, unless we mean a law
that fits in with their preconceptions of what the law should be. The
frequent judicial references to public policy, and other remarks
inconsistent with corrective justice, are not taken as evidence against
the theory, but are condemned as judicial delinquency. In short, the
corrective justice theorists only feel constrained by the law when they
agree with it – rather like Denning, in fact.
>
If
you feel, as do I, that none of these points invalidates corrective
justice, then I cannot see why they invalidate Denning’s contribution to
the common law.
>
As to “good faith”, the term is
plainly not being used here in any ordinary sense (and presumably Jason
means to refer to Steven Burton, not Heyman). “Good faith” is used in many
senses, and without further explanation the charge is quite close to
meaninglessness. I remain in the dark as to what Denning is really being
accused of.
>
I therefore do not feel that Jason’s
views have yet received their most complete articulation.
>
>
/Steve Hedley
> UCC/
>
>
>
------------------------------------------------------------------------
> *From:* Jason Neyers [mailto:jneyers@uwo.ca]
> *Sent:*
Wed 26/11/2008 16:00
> *To:* Hedley, Steve
> *Cc:* obligations@uwo.ca
>
*Subject:* ODG: Denning
>
>
>
> Maybe I
was a little over the top but I just cannot see why some people hold
Denning in such high esteem as a paragon of the judge. My reading of
Denning is that he decided who should win and then tried to support that
result by whatever means necessary. If the law was against him he would
just ignore it or say that was law this is equity (see eg, Sole v Butcher)
even to the point of ignoring House of Lords decisions (see some of his
spinning of the privity cases or of /Heilbut Symons/) or deciding that
they were per incuriam and should not be followed (starting something of a
constitutional crisis, if I remember correctly). His intuitions were not
guided by the law and then refined by cases that counsel found, as is
usual, but rather guided by his sense of what was right and wrong
extra-juridically to which he would make the law conform (I do believe
that he said something to that effect in one of his autobiographies; what
would a moral and right thinking Englishman do). He had an agenda which I
think is born out by the fact that he left the HL to go back to the CA so
that he could further it. Judges shouldn't be fighting battles (as Steve
wrote). I might be wrong, but I also recall reading that as MR he
deliberately assigned himself to cases to protect his previous decisions
(I think /D & C Builders/ is an example, if I remember correctly). I
never had the sense that Denning feels he is constrained by the law at all
(see his comments in /Spartan Steel/)--rather he was its master rather
than the converse (the converse being what Birks thought was a requirement
of the rule of law). A judge judging in good faith should be indifferent
to the results (and I would say its effects more controversially) (which
is not the sense that you get from Denning's judgments) and should feel
that his reasoning process is constrained by the law (which is not the
sense that you get from Denning's judgments). I believe that Heyman makes
these some of the requirements of good faith judging in his interesting
book (entitled /Judging in Good Faith)/. I also think it is corrosive when
judges start claiming that the law is no better than flipping a coin (as I
believe Denning claimed once or twice) or are visibly seen to be taking
sides (consumers over businessmen to use Steve's example). I therefore
don't think my claim about good faith is merely a jurisprudential point.
>
> So is it wrong to claim that he was not judging in good
faith? As a former clerk let me assure you that most appellate judges I
have come in contact with do not behave the same way.
>
>
Others may feel differently but the more I learn about Denning, the less I
respect him as a judge. None these failings can be overcome by his good
points of being an anti-dote to stuffiness or a excellent writer (both of
which seem true enough). I am of course open to be persuaded that I am
wrong and of course would be interested in why Louis Joseph finds this
hurtful.
>
> Cheers,
>
Jason Neyers
>
Associate Professor of Law & > Cassels Brock LLP Faculty Fellow in
Contract Law
> Faculty of Law
> University of Western
Ontario
> N6A 3K7
> (519) 661-2111 x. 88435
>
> Hedley, Steve wrote:
>
>
>
>
>
I appreciate that it’s traditional to have a Christmas punch-up
on either ODG or RDG, though I think Jason is being a bit blatant in
starting this one.
>
>
“Denning
was a menace” – Some think so – others think he was a welcome antidote
to the stuffiness that pervaded the English courts in his time. Of
course, stating it in such vague and emotive terms makes it very hard to
have a rational debate about it. If Jason wants to come out with a more
precise and meaningful statement, we can see what we think about it.
>
>
“He did not judge in good
faith” – this would be a serious accusation indeed, if it meant
anything. I suspect however that Jason has some jurisprudential point in
mind, rather than anything which most people would call an issue of good
or bad faith. We just have to accept that we differ on many fundamental
points. I am several light-years away from Jason’s assumptions about
law, but wouldn’t dream of saying that this made his utterances “bad
faith”. What on earth can Jason has in mind, that such strong language
is called for?
>
>
“…and is
therefore corrosive of the rule of law”. Denning’s general judicial
style was simply a throw-back to the typical style of a century earlier,
made more effective by the fact that he was a good prose stylist as well
as an able lawyer. If that is “corrosive of the rule of law”, then
presumably the rule of law had already been thoroughly corroded in the
late 19^th century. Or does Jason have something more specific in mind?
>
>
“As Robert noted in his
inargural most of Denning's damage to the law of contract has largely
been undone thankfully.” I’ve not seen Robert’s inaugural yet. If this
refers to Denning’s attempt to increase protection for consumers, I
would say that the problem of the old law was the failure to distinguish
sufficiently between consumer and business transactions – a battle which
Denning won, though the result is now expressed in statute rather than
in case law. But what is the issue?
>
>
>
/Steve Hedley/
>
/UCC/
>
>
>
>
>
------------------------------------------------------------------------
>
>
*From:* Jason Neyers [mailto:jneyers@uwo.ca]
> *Sent:*
26 November 2008 13:26
> *To:* Louis Joseph
> *Cc:* obligations@uwo.ca
>
*Subject:* Re: RE: ODG: Roffey Bros
>
>
And that's why Denning was a menace. He did not
judge in good faith and is therefore corrosive of the rule of law. As
Robert noted in his inargural most of Denning's damage to the law of
contract has largely been undone thankfully.
>
>
>
--
Jason
Neyers
Associate Professor of Law &
Cassels Brock LLP Faculty
Fellow in Contract Law
Faculty of Law
University of Western Ontario
N6A 3K7
(519) 661-2111 x. 88435